> why do you say this? Very little of it is written in Aramaic.
I assume the root of this idea is the claim that Jesus spoke Aramaic. I am
not qualified to judge whether that claim is plausible in terms of time and
geography, but I have certainly seen it in multiple places.
However, as you are right to point out, this claim has no relationship to
the languages in which the OT and NT were written.
--Mark