[FoRK] Why is there any experience of it, at all? (was: GEB, etc.)
<lionkimbro at gmail.com> on
Tue Jul 10 08:50:08 PDT 2007
On 7/10/07, Elias Sinderson <elias at soe.ucsc.edu> wrote:
> There s only an explanatory gap if you assume that neural activity
> implies associated experience. This is clearly not the case, hence no
> explanatory gap.
Furthermore, even if you DID think neural activity implies
you'd STILL have an explanatory gap:
What is the nature of the implication?
By what fundamental force is it backed?
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